AST 1002
Test 3, Spring 2004
QQ 1 Which of the following is an observed property of stars?
AA S 1 (1) spectral type
(2) luminosity
(3) surface temperature
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 2 Star A has apparent visual magnitude -1.3, while Star B's apparent 
magnitude is 0.6.  Which of the following statements is correct?
AA S 1 (1) Star A has greater apparent brightness than Star B.
(2) Star B has greater apparent brightness than Star A.
(3) To compare the two stars' apparent brightnesses we need to know their 
distances.
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 3 The Harvard stellar spectral types in order of increasing 
surface temperature are 
AA S 1 (1) MKGFABO
(2) ABFGKMO
(3) OBAFGKM
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 4 Which kind of binary star system cannot be used to determine 
the masses of the two stars?
AA S 1 (1) spectrum
(2) visual, distance known
(3) eclipsing+double-line spectroscopic
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 5 Which method for finding the distances of stars makes use of the 
Earth's orbital motion around the Sun?
AA S 1 (1) trigonometric parallax
(2) spectroscopic parallax
(3) geocentric parallax
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 6 Which part of the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram has the stars with 
the smallest radii (sizes)?
AA S 1 (1) lower left
(2) upper right
(3) lower right
(4) upper left
(5) NVA

QQ 7 The main-sequence stars having the longest lifetimes are those 
AA S 1 (1) at the lower end
(2) at the upper end 
(3) near the middle, like the Sun
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 8 The novae and supernovae belong to which of the 
following classes of variables?
AA S 1 (1) erupting
(2) pulsating
(3) eclipsing
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 9 The type of star cluster that has pretty much just one kind 
of Hertzsprung-Russell diagram with turnoff points low on the 
main sequence is the 
AA S 1 (1) globular cluster
(2) open or galactic cluster
(3) OB association
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 10 Which of the following conditions favors the contraction of a 
gas and dust cloud to form stars?
AA S 1 (1) low temperature
(2) low density
(3) high temperature
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 11 The maximum mass of a main-sequence star, roughly 100 solar 
masses, is determined by the effect of 
AA S 1 (1) radiation pressure
(2) electron degeneracy pressure
(3) magnetic pressure
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 12 A solar-mass star is on the horizontal branch when it 
is at the evolutionary stage of 
AA S 1 (1) helium core-burning
(2) hydrogen shell-burning
(3) helium shell-burning
(4) hydrogen core-burning
(5) NVA

QQ 13 A massive star (many times more massive than the Sun) explodes as a 
Type II supernova when it reaches the point of 
AA S 1 (1) nuclear exhaustion 
(2) helium core-burning ("helium flash")
(3) carbon detonation
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 14 The fact that there is a maximum possible mass for a star that is 
supported against gravity by electron degeneracy pressure was discovered 
by
AA S 1 (1) Chandrasekhar
(2) Eddington
(3) Baade
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 15 Ordinary novae (as opposed to supernovae) are 
AA S 1 (1) white dwarfs in close binary systems with mass transfer
(2) neutron stars in close binary systems with mass transfer
(3) solar-mass stars undergoing the "helium flash" phenomenon
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 16 Pulsars are 
AA S 1 (1) rotating magnetic neutron stars
(2) pulsating white dwarfs
(3) rotating white dwarfs
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 17 The evolution of a star less massive than the Sun will almost 
certainly end up with the star becoming a 
AA S 1 (1) white dwarf
(2) black hole
(3) neutron star larger than the Schwarzschild radius
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 18 The X-ray source Cygnus X-1 is the most convincing example found 
so far of a 
AA S 1 (1) stellar black hole
(2) supermassive black hole
(3) primordial black hole
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 19 Time dilation is the term in connection with black holes that 
refers to 
AA S 1 (1) the slowing down of time near the event horizon as seen by a distant 
observer
(2) the speeding up of time near the event horizon as seen by 
an observer falling towards the event horizon
(3) the stretching of objects by tidal forces near the event horizon
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 20 The Sun's true position in the Milky Way, near the outskirts rather 
than at the center, was established by 
AA S 1 (1) Shapley
(2) Hubble
(3) Baade
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 21 Which of the following has a randomly-oriented, highly 
eccentric orbit inside the Milky Way?
AA S 1 (1) a globular cluster in the halo
(2) an O star in the disk
(3) the Sun
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 22 In the original (simple) version of the idea of stellar populations, 
Population I was 
AA S 1 (1) the young, metal-rich stars of the disk
(2) the old, metal-poor stars of the bulge and halo
(3) the young, metal-rich stars of the halo
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 23 The Milky Way's rotation curve is flat (after a rise at small 
distances from the center).  This implies that 
AA S 1 (1) there is a large amount of mass outside the Sun's orbit, 
mostly in the form of dark matter
(2) the Milky Way's mass is concentrated at the center, like the Solar 
System's
(3) the density of matter is pretty much the same everywhere inside 
the Milky Way
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 24 The spiral arms of spiral galaxies are best traced using 
AA S 1 (1) O and B stars and H II regions 
(2) globular clusters
(3) yellow main-sequence stars like the Sun
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 25 The flocculent spiral structure seen in some galaxies 
is thought to be explained by which theory?
AA S 1 (1) sequential star formation
(2) density wave
(3) "windup" theory
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 26 A spiral galaxy having no bar, a relatively large central 
bulge, and tightly wrapped spiral arms is classified on the 
Hubble system as 
AA S 1 (1) Sa
(2) SBa
(3) Sc
(4) S0
(5) NVA

QQ 27 The Hubble type of galaxy having the reddest color, the 
smallest percentage of gas and dust, and the least active 
star formation is 
AA S 1 (1) E
(2) Irr (amorphous)
(3) S and SB
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 28 Which of the following methods gives distances for the most distant 
objects?
AA S 1(1) Tully-Fisher relation
(2) Cepheid period-luminosity relation
(3) main-sequence fitting
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 29 The fundamental problem posed by quasars was 
AA S 1 (1) how to produce so much luminosity from such a small volume 
(2) how any object could have such a large redshift
(3) why some are radio sources and some are not
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 30 According to the Hubble Law, on average a galaxy's radial velocity 
AA S 1 (1) is greater the farther away it is 
(2) is smaller the farther away it is
(3) depends on the Hubble type of the galaxy but not on the distance
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 31 Quasars, radio galaxies, Seyfert galaxies and several other 
unusual types are all though to be related, under the heading of 
{\it active galactic nuclei}.  The energy source for all these is 
thought to be 
AA S 1 (1) gravitational potential energy of a supermassive black hole 
(2) nuclear fusion of a large number of stars
(3) matter-antimatter annihilation
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 32 The virial theorem was used to estimate 
AA S 1 (1) the total mass of a cluster of galaxies 
(2) the total mass of a single rotating galaxy
(3) the total mass of a supercluster
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 33 Large nearly-empty regions of space are referred to as 
AA S 1 (1) voids
(2) superclusters
(3) giant dark clouds
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 34 The cosmological model based on general relativity with the 
cosmological constant equal to zero and a mass density less than 
a certain critical value is the one which 
AA S 1 (1) expands more and more slowly but never stops expanding and has 
negatively curved space
(2) expands more and more slowly until it stops and then begins to 
contract and has positively curved space
(3) expands more and more slowly but never stops expanding and has space 
with zero curvature (flat space)
(4) NVA
(5) NVA

QQ 35 Recent studies of the Universe's expansion using Type Ia (white dwarf) 
supernovae indicate that it is 
AA S 1 (1) accelerating
(2) decelerating
(3) steady, neither accelerating nor decelerating
(4) NVA
(5) NVA